I have read this paper many times: Coupled Spin and Valley Physics in Monolayers of MoS2 and Other Group-VI Dichalcogenides. Interestingly, this paper is also discussed many times in this community, such as:
- Separation of valence bands in transition metal dichalcogenides (TMDs)
- How to derive the effective Hamiltonian of two-dimensional TMDCs monolayers?
One of the most important conclusions is the spin-dependent optical transition. However, the authors claim that [optical field couples only to the orbital part of the wave function and spin is conserved in the optical transitions]. Therefore, the spin-dependent transitions are realized by the spin-valley coupling that I have understood.
Here my confusing part is about why we can't change the spin angular momentum of electrons with the external optical field? For example, assume that the left circular polarization light, carried a spin angular momentum $\hbar$, is absorbed by an electron with spin angular momentum $-\dfrac{1}{2}\hbar$, then the energy of the photon is eaten by the electron, but where is the spin angular momentum of the photon if we think the electron spin is conserved? Is it transferred to the orbital angular momentum of the electron? How?