The Kohn-Sham equations are given by:
$$ \left(-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m} \nabla_{i}^{2}+V_{s}\left(\hat{\boldsymbol{r}}_{i}\right)+V_{H}\left(\hat{\boldsymbol{r}}_{i}\right)+V_{X C}\left(\hat{\boldsymbol{r}}_{i}\right)\right) \psi_{i}(\boldsymbol{r})=\epsilon_{i} \psi_{i}(\boldsymbol{r}) $$
where $V_s$ is the electrostatic potential due to $N$ nuclei felt by the $i^{\text {th}}$ electron,
$$ V_{s}\left(\boldsymbol{r}_{i}\right)=-\frac{e^{2}}{4 \pi \epsilon_{0}} \sum_{I=1}^{N} \frac{Z_{I}}{\left|\boldsymbol{r}_{i}-\boldsymbol{R}_{I}\right|} $$
and the mean-field potential (also called the Hartree potential) felt by the $i^{\text {th}}$ electron is given by averaging the remaining $(n-1)$ electrons as a smooth distribution of negative charge with electron number density $\rho_{n}$,
$$ V_{H}\left(\boldsymbol{r}_{i}\right)=\frac{e^{2}}{4 \pi \epsilon_{0}} \int \frac{\rho_{n}\left(\boldsymbol{r}^{\prime}\right)}{\left|\boldsymbol{r}_{i}-\boldsymbol{r}^{\prime}\right|} d \boldsymbol{r}^{\prime} $$
and $V_{XC}({\boldsymbol{r}})$ is the exchange-correlation "potential" felt by the $i^{\text {th}}$ electron,
$$ V_{XC}(\boldsymbol{r}_i)=\frac{\delta E_{X C}\left[\rho_{n}\right]}{\delta \rho_{n}(\boldsymbol{r}_i)} $$
The exchange-corelation functional contains all the many-body effects. It includes all classical and quantum effects and corrections not already accounted for by $V_s$ and $V_H$. These include the exchange effects due to the Pauli exclusion principle, the short-range Coulomb correlations not accounted by the Hartree term, and the kinetic energy difference between the interacting and non-interacting electrons.
My question is how come the Kohn-Sham equations are considered single-particle equations when the $V_{XC}$ term is essentially a many-particle quantity?
I found a related question here How can we say that the KS equation is describing a noninteracting many-electron system? which is similar to my question; however, the question there is about $V_H$ not $V_{XC}$. I can perceive that $V_s$ and $V_H$ are external potentials coming from the nuclei and the mean-field approximation of the electrons, but how the presence of a many-body term is reconciled with this single-particle picture?